Corvin

Even though I've read the book (LOTR) and seen the films several times, I still don't know the answer to this.

Was making Sauron visible in the prologue artistic liberty on Jackson's part? I can't imagine so, though, because the events of the book and FOTR are quite similar in that the ring is cut of Sauron's hand. We could assume that his hand would then be visible.

So why doesn't the Ring of Power render Sauron invisible? It is because he knows how to manipulate it, or chooses not to turn invisible, or is it something in his being that makes it so?

Just wondering, and I hope some of the more avid LOTR fans can help me out.

diacritic

The ring has little or no effect on those with little or no power (Sam, Frodo, Bilbo are affected in various minimal ways: invisibility, tendency to lie, distrust of other people). Men who wear or bear (or are in proximity to) the ring are quickly corrupted by its power (Isildur, Boromir). Only Sauron can control the ring in the way it is meant: pure destruction. So yes, only Sauron is able to manipulate the ring.

costanza

tom bombadil never went invisible when he put on the ring either.

Jepthah

Sauron is more spirit than he is flesh, even when he was embodied. That should give you some clue, but ideally you have to work it out for yourself.

Corvin

Fair enough. Just wondering if there was some hardcore Tolkien explanation that I was missing out on.